Arnold Carton

1 week ago | sluggerotoole.com | Arnold Carton |Mick Fealty

Why did Britain (or England) prosper in the late 1700’s and lead the way in the Industrial Revolution? Was this in part due to the earlier Glorious Revolution when our own ‘King Billy’ defeated the Catholic King James and ensured that Britain was a ‘Protestant State’ and had a Protestant work-ethic? Why do some countries like the USA become rich, while nearby countries like Mexico remain poor; what makes one country successful and another fail?

1 month ago | sluggerotoole.com | Arnold Carton |David McCann

There are historical examples where companies did indeed run countries but not for the good of the citizens. The British East India Company effectively ran India for over 70 years during the late 18th and early 19th century, extracting as much wealth for its shareholders as possible and even being involved in both the slave and opium trades over the years.